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Looking for a quote origin

Started by buswolley, January 16, 2007, 02:32:38 am

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Someone I know has thrown down the gauntlet and now I have to play.
Does any one out there know the origins of this quote: "I am who am."

I am pretty sure it isn\'t the bible "I am who I am" or "I am that I am" depending on translation.
And, I'm pretty sure it isn't Popeye "I yam what I yam."
Finally, I am not so sure the guy just got the quote wrong.

Thanks for your time even if you don't know.


January 16, 2007, 05:43:33 am #1 Last Edit: January 16, 2007, 05:59:18 am by ChickenSon
a Vulgate or Greek Septuagint translation of a bible quote seems like the most likely answer. Popeye was way later.
I'm Sorry


I think so too, but I was hopeful that someone in here would come up with something more out of the box.  

Perhaps I am giving the young man who threw the gauntlet in the first place more credit than he deserves.

My bet is still on the bible.

Chris DiCicco

January 16, 2007, 07:08:08 am #3 Last Edit: January 16, 2007, 07:08:33 am by Chris
sounds like a befuddled statement or an answer to an a misidentification to Me as in, I am Who\'m? or I am Who am?

The Prophet, Koran er Quran I have yet to read this book or the Bible fer that matter.

My Money is on the Koran, I\'ll go look!

Chris DiCicco
The Exosphere  2013

Chris DiCicco

I lost!

heres a BIGGGY!

Moses asks God: "If they should say to me: What is his [God\'s] name? What shall I say to them?" In reply, God returns three several times to the determination of His name. First, He uses the first person imperfect of the Hebrew verb "to be"; here the Vulgate, the Septuagint, Aquila, Theodotion, and the Arabic version suppose that God uses the imperfect qal; only the Targums of Jonathan and of Jerusalem imply the imperfect hiphil. Hence we have the renderings: "I am who am" (Vulg.), "I am who is" (Sept.), "I shall be {who] shall be" (Aquila, Theodotion), "the Eternal who does not cease" (Ar.); only the above-mentioned Targums see any reference to the creation of the world. The second time, God uses again the first person imperfect of the Hebrew verb "to be"; here the Syriac, the Sumaritan, the Persian versions, and the Targums of Onkelos and Jerusalem retain the Hebrew word, so that one cannot tell whether they regard the imperfect as a qal or a hiphil form; the Arabic version omits the whole clause; but the Septuagint, the Vulgate, and the Targum of Jonathan suppose here the imperfect qal: "He Who Is, hath sent me to you" instead of "I Am, hath sent me to you: (Vulg.); "ho on sent me to you" (Sept.); "I am who am, and who shall be, hath sent me to you" (Targ. Jon.). Finally, the third time, God uses the third person of the imperfect, or the form of the sacred name itself; here the Samaritan version and the Targum of Onkelos retain the Hebrew form; the Septuagint, the Vulgate, and the Syriac version render "Lord", though, according to the analogy of the former two passages, they should have translated, "He Is, the God of your fathers, . . . hath sent me to you"; the Arabic version substitutes "God". Classical exegesis, therefore, regards Jahveh as the imperfect qal of the Hebrew verb "to be".
The Exosphere  2013

Chris DiCicco


heres where I got it from.

no books were harmed in getting this info.

Chris DiCicco
The Exosphere  2013